Slaves (of any
race) were counted as 3/5 of a free
preson,
not 2/3, for the number of seats in the House of
Representatives.
The seats of the Electoral College are the total
seats in
Congress - that is, 2 (senators) + the number of
representatives.
So, yes, the 3/5 did effect electoral college
representation,
but not directly.
And of course it was the North that insisted that
slaves were less
than a person. The slaveholders would have been
very happy to have
them counted as full persons for purposes of
representation, as long
they remained property. It was the Northern states
that insisted on
reducing the South's number of Congressmen.
I'm sorry about these inaccuracies, but how is this
relevant?
LDan
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